I typically play grammar by ear (I never bothered come formally study the rules), so ns don't understand why

"Thank you for inviting mine family and also I" and "Thank you for inviting me and my family" both sound correct while

"Thank you because that inviting I and my family" and also "Thank you for inviting my family and me" both sound incorrect.

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The ns vs me rule doesn't yes, really help; "Thank you for inviting me" sounds correct "Thank you for inviting I" is clear wrong.

Can anyone help with this?


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"Thank you because that inviting mine family and me"

Two things are going ~ above here.

1> always put yourself behind the other person in a compound. So I, me, etc. Constantly comes behind the other people - you, them, they, my friends, mine family, ... The list is limitless -- in English, friend don't counting for as lot as the civilization you're linking to through a conjunction.

The second problem is yes, really easier. Simply think what you would certainly say if there wasn't other (someone) else connected to it. Would certainly you ever say, "Thank you for inviting I"? If not, then don't use 'I' just due to the fact that they invited someone else too.


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level 2
· 9y

I've been making use of 'My friend and also I' because that the longest time, mainly due to the fact that I was told the if you take the other human being out of the sentence it transforms the structure fully since you shed a subject/noun etc. Can someone please clarify this?


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level 1
· 9y
What girlfriend really need to know is the "I" is for when you space doing the verb and "me" is for as soon as someone is act the verb come you. Because the inviting is being done to you, it's gotta it is in "me."


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· 9y

Well. What's keep going is the the verb needs something in the objective instance to come after ~ it. ‘My family’ is the same whether it's topic or object, and if you usage ‘my family and also I’ as the object of a verb, due to the fact that the household bit comes first it kind of ‘shields’ the i from sounding also strange. (It is tho wrong, in typical written English, but it's the sort of point you will certainly hear a lot in speech.) conversely, if ‘I’ comes instantly after the verb it's obvious straight away that it needs to it is in in the objective type ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9y

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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· 9y

If you pare the sentence down to the essentials, the rules become clearer. Together you noted, "thank you for inviting me" is correct due to the fact that me is one object, not a subject. Thus, "thank you for inviting my family, friends, poodle, pets fish and me" is additionally correct.


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· 9y · edited 9y

We room talking about the corresponding indirect instance forms of what is "my family and I" and "I and my family" in the (unstressed) straight case. "My family" doesn't adjust anyway, yet the indirect case type of "I" is "me".

Now the concern is what happens when we placed the two together and we really desire the indirect instance of the conjunction. Languages differ in how they take care of this. English and the major European languages placed both parts in the indirect case prior to joining them. Therefore the correct develops are " mine family and also me" and also " me and also my family". This is all there is to say indigenous an education prescriptive allude of view.

Nevertheless, so numerous native speaker of English agree through your early intuitions, that us cannot claim that " my family and also I" is fully wrong. What is more, significant numbers of civilization have been talking prefer this for centuries. Clearly there is some alternative grammatical sample at work.

I guess over there are countless ways the phenomenon can potentially be explained. To get an ext information, the is best to change "my family" by something because that which the straight object type is not similar to the indirect thing form. A great example is " him/he and me/I" / " me/I and him/he", and with that there space some fascinating phenomena. Check out http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 for details and for a conversation of possible explanation.

My explanation 1, which is similar to several of those mentioned in the Language log post, claims that your grammatical dominion goes around as follows:

Direct thing or indirect, emphasize or unstressed, in English it's all the exact same (immutable) except for personal pronouns.

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When you join words v "and", the result is never a personal pronoun, also when several of the ingredient are personal pronouns. Therefore, even facility constructions including a pronoun space immutable. Either "my family and I" is exactly regardless that case, or "my family and also me" is exactly regardless the case, or both room correct nevertheless of case. I.e., if one deserve to be supplied for X in "inviting X", then it have the right to be used in "X invited" and also vice versa.

Now we have decoupled the situation of "I"/"me" native the context in which "my family and I/me" occurs, but we should still choose between "I" and also "me". A standard an option in any kind of Indo-European language would be the straight object case, so "I". This is the obvious an option if you have a little bit of official grammar education. Top top the other hand, English likewise uses the indirect object case, i.e. "me", as a stressed variant of the direct object case. (E.g. In titles. Basically in the same cases where French supplies "moi" rather of "je".) for this reason that's also a perfectly great choice. In general, "me" is more idiomatic yet is rejected by countless pedants who merely deny that English has actually stressed variants the pronouns and also prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explanation additionally tells united state why many native speakers, particularly children, speak things like "Me and also my brother went fishing."

My alternate explanation states that for some speakers, as soon as a complicated phrase is in the indirect case, only the first constituent gets marked as indirect case and the rest continues to be in direct case. This predicts "invite him and also she" as well as "invite her and also he" together 'correct'. If any type of native speaker yes, really feels that these room correct (I doubt it), please speak up!

(This alternative explanation is not completely insane. E.g. In German, once you put a wire of adjective in front of a noun that is in the dative case, then only the very first adjective -- or the short article preceding that -- is in the dative case, and the others room in the please select candidate case. That's comparable and even weirder.)